ajp4mgs
Super Freak
- Joined
- Jul 10, 2017
- Messages
- 2,305
- Reaction score
- 1,672
Well, based on the quote ?there has been an awakening?, and indeed the title of the film, one can surmise Rey didn?t start connecting with The Force until TFA - and Snoke/Palps then became aware.
I said I'd give some thought to this idea of Rey needing a "Force Awakening" before Palps could reach her, and I have. It doesn't work. In fact, the whole idea of a Force "awakening" in TFA should've been considered poor writing right from the outset. It doesn't really jibe with what the OT established and PT maintained.
If Force users who are related can only reach out to one another once the Force has been "awakened" in both, how did Luke reach Leia as he dangled from Cloud City? When was Leia's Force "awakened" before that? For that matter, when was the moment of Luke's? If Snoke and Kylo felt an awakening in TFA when it happened to Rey (as if they were using Xavier's Cerebro ), Palpatine and Vader would've felt it happening with Luke two years prior to ESB.
So, not only does it make zero sense that Palpatine could manipulate some unrelated kid inside his head since childhood (he surely would've done it with Anakin, and maybe even Luke), the whole idea of Ben Solo being corrupted from youth - yet not Rey - just doesn't fly. If he could corrupt a Skywalker offspring from a distance, he'd certainly be able to do the same with his own granddaughter.
Luke connected with Leia's mind from across the galaxy in TLJ without knowing her location/whereabouts, and Leia did the same with Ben and Rey (who had no bloodline connection) in TROS. So, I just can't see any reason (not bloodline, nor whereabouts, nor "awakenings") for Palpatine to need Rey hunted down rather than corrupted from a distance. Also, when ST logic doesn't line up with OT/PT established context, it falls apart for me.